Ok when an object is at rest, it has 100% or potential energy and 0% kinetic energy. So would the object have to move at the speed of light to attain 100% kinetic enegy and 0% potential energy? Right? Theoretically? am i bass ackwards on this.
furthermore, that imparting force has to have energy to move the object the speed of light, as a reffrence correct?
furthermore, that imparting force has to have energy to move the object the speed of light, as a reffrence correct?

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